The maybe most popular microeconomics book reads "we suppose that the monopolist knows the demand function for its product..." (1). This raises the question: why in the hell isn't such a monopolist a perfect discriminator? I mean, he know what prices he can charge for every marginal quantity supplied, and he doesn't do it?! Can we think about a pure monopolist not being at a time a perfect discriminator as something but a logical contradiction? Tell me a reason why such a monopolist would charge the same price to anyone knowing how much surplus he can exact from each.Yes, you can impose some institutional arrangement, but can you think of any which doesn't violate the standard Marshallian setting?
(1) Mas Colell et al. Microeconomic Theory. 1995. Page 384.
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